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Micro & Infection Control Exam Questions, Lecture notes of Nursing

Ateneo de Davao University (ADDU)Nursing

A set of exam questions related to microbiology and infection control. It covers topics such as the identification of disease-causing microorganisms, the transmission of infectious agents, the immune system's response to pathogens, and the prevention and control of infections in healthcare settings. The questions test the reader's understanding of key concepts in microbiology, epidemiology, and infection control practices. The document could be useful for students preparing for exams or assessments in fields such as nursing, medicine, or public health, as it provides a comprehensive review of important microbiological principles and their clinical applications.

Typology: Lecture notes

2021/2022

Uploaded on 05/14/2024

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mortega-lilybeth 🇵🇭

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Micro & Infection Control Exam Questions
1. Microorganisms that cause disease are known as
A. Carriers
B. Pathogens
C. Vectors
D. Saprophytes
Rationale: B. pathogens are disease-causing microorganisms
2. Microorganisms that can be macroscopic and treated with antihelmintic drugs are
A. Bacteria
B. Rickettsia
C. Protozoa
D. Parasitic worms
Rationale: D. Parasitic worms (helminths) such as pinworms, roundworms, or tapeworms
reproduce in the intestinal tract and may be seen in feces
3. Mycotic infections (athlete’s foot and ringworm) are caused by
A. Fungi
B. Viruses
C. Staphylococci
D. Rickettsia
Rationale: A. Tinea is a ring-shaped lesion caused by a fungus. Tinea pedis is a fungus infection
of the foot known as ringworm
4. Organisms that cause hepatitis are
A. Bacteria
B. Streptococci
C. Protozoa
D. Viruses
Rationale: D. Hepatitis is caused by a virus
5. The bacteria that are spherical in shape, appear in clusters, and are the most common cause of
postoperative wound infections are
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus aureus
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Micro & Infection Control Exam Questions

  1. Microorganisms that cause disease are known as A. Carriers B. Pathogens C. Vectors D. Saprophytes Rationale: B. pathogens are disease-causing microorganisms
  2. Microorganisms that can be macroscopic and treated with antihelmintic drugs are A. Bacteria B. Rickettsia C. Protozoa D. Parasitic worms Rationale: D. Parasitic worms (helminths) such as pinworms, roundworms, or tapeworms reproduce in the intestinal tract and may be seen in feces
  3. Mycotic infections (athlete’s foot and ringworm) are caused by A. Fungi B. Viruses C. Staphylococci D. Rickettsia Rationale: A. Tinea is a ring-shaped lesion caused by a fungus. Tinea pedis is a fungus infection of the foot known as ringworm
  4. Organisms that cause hepatitis are A. Bacteria B. Streptococci C. Protozoa D. Viruses Rationale: D. Hepatitis is caused by a virus
  5. The bacteria that are spherical in shape, appear in clusters, and are the most common cause of postoperative wound infections are A. Treponema pallidum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Escherichia coli D. Staphylococcus aureus

Rationale: D. Staphylococcus aureus is a spherical-shaped ( coccus ) bacterium which appears in clusters (staphyl-) and produces coagulase (the enzyme which coagulates plasma), resulting in the formation of pus or abscesses

  1. Bacteria that live only in the presence of oxygen are called A. Parasites B. Anaerobes C. Pathogens D. Aerobes Rationale: D. Aerobes are life forms which require air or oxygen for survival. Aneaerobes can live without oxygen. Parasites live off a host. Pathogens are disease-causing microorganisms.
  2. Which of the following bacilli are spore-forming anaerobes, found in soil, and capable of causing gas gangrene? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Mycobacteria C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Bacillus subtilis Rationale: A. Clostridium perfringens are anaerobic, found in soil, and cause gas gangrene as the result of a “dirty” wound, often a puncture wound
  3. Which of the following infectious organisms is most likely to be transmitted through a contaminated needle stick? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Hepatitis B (HBV) C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Streptococcus pneumonia Rationale: B.
  4. A tough, resistant “shell form” of some gram-positive bacilli which is extremely resistant to destruction and toward which all sterilization methods are aimed is a(n) A. Capsule B. Endotoxin C. Endospore D. Flagellum Rationale: C. Like seeds, an endospore can survive extreme environmental conditions such as freezing, drying, or boiling and is the most resistant of any life form to destruction
  5. An enzyme produced by some virulent microorganisms, such as the hemolytic streptococcus , that breaks down fibrin and leads to wound infection is

Rationale: C. Treponema pallidum is the causative agent of syphilis, a sexually transmitted disease

  1. Which of the following factors would have the LEAST effect in determining whether or not one exposed to a disease would contract it? A. Weight of host B. Resistance of the host C. Dose and virulence of the organism D. Duration of exposure Rationale: A. The critical factors in determining whether or not one exposed to a disease will contract it are resistance of the host, dose of the organism, virulence of the organism, and duration of exposure
  2. Host resistance to infection may be lowered by all of the following EXCEPT A. Poor circulation B. Presence of another disease process C. Emotional depression D. Proper nutritional state Rationale: D. Proper nutrition INCREASES resistance to disease
  3. When a patient has a generalized (systemic) infection, the white blood cell (WBC) count would A. Increase B. Decrease C. Stay the same D. Not be a factor Rationale: A. WBCs are phagocytic, which serve as the body’s second line of defense against infectious disease and would increase in number during an infections, when the body is “mobilizing the troops”
  4. The type of isolation recommended for the immunocompromised, burn, or organ transplant patient is A. Protective B. Strict C. Enteric

D. Drainage and secretions Rationale: A. Protective isolation (sometimes referred to as reverse isolation) protects a compromised host (i.e., burn or transplant patient) from being overcome with infection and mimics surgical asepsis, as the goal is to keep infectious organisms away from the patient

  1. Pathogens that get past the first line of defense are engulfed by WBCs, a process known as A. Filtration B. Phagocytosis C. Antigen-antibody reaction D. Immunization Rationale: B. Phagocytosis is the process of phagocytes (WBCs) engulfing and destroying bacteria
  2. The immunity received by having had a disease (i.e., measles) is known as A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity Rationale: A. Naturally acquired active immunity is protection provided by the body actively producing antibodies in response to specific antigens. This type of immunity is naturally acquired as a result of having the disease and is long lasting.
  3. When a person forms antibodies against his or her own tissues, it is known as A. Autoimmunity B. Rejection syndrome C. Anaphylaxis D. Passive immunity Rationale: A. Autoimmunity is a condition characterized by a specific humoral or cell-mediated immune response against constituents of the body’s own tissues
  4. An infection acquired while one is being treated in a health care facility is known as A. Primary infection B. Acute infection C. Community-acquired infection D. Nosocomial infection Rationale: D. A nosocomial infection is one that originates while a patient is in the hospital or other health care institution and may be referred to as iatrogenic or hospital-acquired

Rm 7:00 DrB Splenectomy Gen TF DrB Gastrectomy Gen Rm 8:30 Dr.T Cholecystectomy Gen TF Dr.T I & D Gen TF Dr.T Debridement Gen Rm 7:00 Dr.A Cystoscopy MAC TF DrA Cystoplasty Gen TF DrF Pyelogram MAC TF DrF Cystocele repair Gen Rm 7:00 Dr.K Nephrectomy Gen TF Dr.K Choledocholithotripsy MAC TF Dr.K Colectomy Gen Rm 7:00 DrY Carpal Tunnel MAC TF DrY Fasciotomy Gen Rm 7:00 Dr.L Cervical Cone Biopsy Gen TF Dr.L Sentinal Node Biopsy Gen Rm 7:00 Dr.G Trans-sphenoidal Gen Adenoidectomy TF Dr.G Transurethral resection Gen of the prostate TF Dr.G Bletharoplasty Gen Rm 7:00 Dr.W Transmetatarsal amputation Gen TF Dr.W Osteotomy Gen TF Dr.W Rt Knee Arthroplasty Gen Rm 7:00 Dr.R Lumbar laminectomy Gen Rm 7:00 Dr.O Hysterectomy Gen The following questions should be answered using the surgery schedule above

  1. Room 9 has a debridement scheduled to follow an I&D. Why is this procedure being performed? A. To remove necrotic or infected tissue B. To remove scarred tissue C. To culture the wound D. To prevent infection A. Rationale: Debridement is commonly done to remove infected or necrotic tissue. There are specific types of bacteria that grow well in necrotic tissue, including Clostridium Perfringens and other anaerobic bacteria. Generally, the surgeon will remove all of the necrosed infected tissue along with a margin of healthy tissue to ensure that the infection does not spread. The surgeon may also culture the wound to determine the type of infection present, but, while the goal of the surgery may be to prevent the further spread of and determine the type of infection, it is primarily done to remove tissue already damaged.
  2. The patient undergoing the Colectomy in Room 10 will be at an increased risk of infection from what? A. Endogenous bacteria B. Nosocomial infection C. Viral infection D. Exogenous Bacteria A. Rationale: The patient undergoing a surgical procedure involving entry into the digestive tract is at an increased risk of endogenous infections. The bowel contains many types of bacteria that aid in the digestive process. These bacteria are harmless in their natural location, but become extremely pathogenic and aggressive when they are allowed into other areas of the body. The surgeon in this case may request antibiotics in the irrigation to reduce the risk of an infection.
  1. The patient in Room 5 was given penicillin and suffered anaphylactic shock. What is the treatment that needs to be followed? A. Levophed should be administered B. Dantrolene should be given C. Epinephrine should be given D. Protamine sulfate should be given C. Rationale: Epinephrine is routinely given to patients in anaphylactic shock.
  2. The patient in Room 12 is having a trans-metatarsal amputation due to clostridium perfringens. What does this patient have? A. Tetanus B. Gas gangrene C. Viral streptococcus D. Necrotizing fasciitis B. Rationale: Clostridium perfringens is an anaerobic bacterial infection that requires aggressive treatment, including amputation. This bacterium can be found in the soil, and can enter the body through a break in the skin, usually the foot.
  3. The I&D was originally scheduled before the knee replacement in Room 12. Why was it moved? A. The surgeon was already scheduled in Room 9 B. The patient requested an earlier surgery C. An infected case should never be performed before a clean orthopedic case D. The equipment that has already been placed in Room 9 is more conducive to the procedure C. Rationale: It is good practice to try to keep infected cases out of rooms that have a sterile case following. In the case of orthopedics, this is an extremely important practice. Orthopedic procedures are easily contaminated, and represent a distinct threat of infection for the patient who may require more surgery, longer hospital stays, and possible amputation. For these reasons, most ORs will not schedule an infected case before a sterile procedure.
  4. There is an on call below knee amputation that needs to be placed in a Room. Where should this surgery be performed? A. Room 12 B. Room 9 C. Room 6 D. It should not be performed B. Rationale: Most amputations are performed due to infection that has not been contained. Therefore, every effort should be made to place this procedure in a room that is already dealing with contaminated cases.
  5. One room has a possible issue with cases being performed. Which room should be changed? A. Room 12 B. Room 8 C. Room 11 D. Room 13 A. Rationale: For the reasons stated in questions 5 and 6 , the trans-metatarsal surgery should be rescheduled for another room.