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Neurological Disorders: Multiple Choice Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

Purdue University GlobalNursing

A series of multiple-choice questions and answers related to various neurological disorders. It covers topics such as confusion, dizziness, seizures, multiple sclerosis, alzheimer's disease, headaches, parkinson's disease, and more. The questions are designed to test knowledge of common neurological conditions, their symptoms, causes, and treatments. This resource can be valuable for students of medicine, nursing, or other healthcare professions.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 01/06/2025

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MN 568 UNIT 9 QUESTIONS WITH
COMPLETE & ACCURATE
ANSWERS.
1) Which statement about confusion is true?
a. Confusion is a disease process.
b. Confusion is always temporary.
c. Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.
d. Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older
adults. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” d. Polypharmacy is a major
contributor to confusion in older adults.
2) Sondra's peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and
vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease
edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
a. Meclizine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Diamox
d. Promethazine -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Diamox
3) The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
a. No activity at all
b. A blank stare
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ”
b. A blank stare
4) How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure
medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is
adequate?
a. Every 3 months
b. Every 6 months
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Download Neurological Disorders: Multiple Choice Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

MN 568 UNIT 9 QUESTIONS WITH

COMPLETE & ACCURATE

ANSWERS.

  1. Which statement about confusion is true? a. Confusion is a disease process. b. Confusion is always temporary. c. Age is a reliable predictor of confusion. d. Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” d. Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.
  2. Sondra's peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear? a. Meclizine b. Diphenhydramine c. Diamox d. Promethazine -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Diamox
  3. The hallmark of an absence seizure is: a. No activity at all b. A blank stare c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily d. The attack usually lasts several minutes -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. A blank stare
  4. How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate? a. Every 3 months b. Every 6 months

c. Annually d. Whenever there is a problem -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. Every 6 months

  1. Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)? a. A teenage male b. A 65-year-old male c. A 25-year-old female d. A 60-year-old female -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. A 25-year-old female
  2. Which of the following is a specific test to MS? a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. Computed tomography (CT) scan c. A lumbar puncture d. There is no specific test. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” d. There is no specific test.
  3. Which drug for Alzheimer's disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis? a. Cholinesterase inhibitors b. Anxiolytics c. Antidepressants d. Atypical antipsychotics -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
  4. Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery? a. Epidural hematoma b. Subdural hematoma c. Subarachnoid hematoma d. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” a. Epidural hematoma
  5. Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

a. MRI b. CT c. Electroencephalogram (EEG) d. An initial lumbar puncture -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” a. MRI

  1. What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster? a. A stabbing pain on one small area of the body b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body c. A pain that is worse upon awakening d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
  2. Gabby, aged 22, has Bell's palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her? a. "Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months." b. "Unfortunately, you'll probably have a small amount of residual damage." c. "Don't worry, I'll take care of everything." d. "You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage." -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” a. "Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months."
  3. Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson's disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him: a. "L-dopa is neuroprotective." b. "The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine." c. "This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit." d. "This is the initial monotherapy drug." -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. "The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine."
  4. Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD? a. Resting tremor

b. Bradykinesia c. Rigidity d. Postural instability -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” d. Postural instability

  1. Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine? a. Light sensitivity b. Pulsatile pain c. Sound sensitivity d. Experiencing an aura -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. Pulsatile pain
  2. Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo? a. The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo. b. There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual associated symptom with central vertigo. c. Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not. d. The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual associated symptom with central vertigo.
  3. Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis? a. Greater than 25% b. Greater than 50% c. Greater than 75% d. Only for 100% occlusion -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. Greater than 50%
  4. What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke? a. Aspirin b. Ticlopidine c. Clopidogrel

b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive. c. Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder. d. These persons may drive but never alone. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.

  1. Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month? a. Glatiramer acetate b. Natalizumab c. Fingolimod d. Glucocorticoids -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. Natalizumab
  2. The 'freezing phenomenon' is a cardinal feature of? a. Parkinson's disease b. Alzheimer's disease c. A CVA d. Bell's palsy -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” a. Parkinson's disease
  3. A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as? a. Spinothalamic dysfunction b. Ratcheting c. Cogwheeling d. Hand tremors -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Cogwheeling
  4. Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition? a. Guillain-Barrรฉ syndrome b. Parkinson's disease c. Alzheimer's disease d. Huntington's disease -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. Parkinson's disease
  1. Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception? a. Guillain-Barrรฉ syndrome b. Parkinson's disease c. Alzheimer's disease d. Delirium -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Alzheimer's disease
  2. A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer's disease: a. SLUMS b. MoCA c. FAST d. MMSE -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” d. MMSE
  3. Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset? a. 1 hour b. 3 hours c. 6 hours d. 12 hours -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. 3 hours
  4. When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache? a. Tension b. Migraine c. Cluster d. Stress -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Cluster
  5. A client is diagnosed with seizures occurring because of hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse realizes that the cause for this clients seizures would be:
  1. physiological.
  2. iatrogenic.
  3. idiopathic.
  4. psychokinetic. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 1. physiological.
  1. take the medication every day as prescribed by the doctor.
  2. eat a balanced diet.
  3. get lots of exercise.
  4. take naps during the day. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 1. take the medication every day as prescribed by the doctor.
  1. The nurse is instructing a client newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). To determine the effectiveness of his teaching, the nurse would expect the client to state:
  1. It is best for me to be in a cold environment.
  2. I should avoid taking a hot bath.
  3. I should eat foods low in salt.
  4. I should be better in a week. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 2.I should avoid taking a hot bath.
  1. An adult female in her 30s complains of numbness and tingling in the hands, fatigue, loss of coordination, incontinence, nystagmus, and ataxia. Which of the following health problems do these symptoms suggest to the nurse?
  1. Brain tumor
  2. Myasthenia gravis
  3. Multiple sclerosis
  4. Diabetes -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 3.Multiple sclerosis
  1. For a client diagnosed with Parkinsons disease, which of the following might be contraindicated?
  1. Performing range-of-motion exercises
  2. Drinking bottled water
  3. Instituting fall precautions
  4. Taking naps -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 2.Drinking bottled water
  1. A client diagnosed with Parkinsons disease is beginning medication therapy. The nurse realizes that the goal of treatment for Parkinsons disease is to:
  1. improve sleep.
  2. reduce appetite.
  3. control tremor and rigidity.
  4. reduce the need for joint replacement surgery. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 3. Control tremor and rigidity.
  1. A client presents complaining of abnormal muscle weakness and fatigability. The physician suspects myasthenia gravis. Which drug can be used to test for this disease?
  1. pyridostigmine (Mestinon)
  2. Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
  3. Ambenonium (Mytelase)
  4. Edrophonium (Tensilon) -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 4.Edrophonium (Tensilon)
  1. For the client who is at risk for stroke, the most important guideline the nurse should teach is to:
  1. increase drinks with caffeine.
  2. monitor blood pressure.
  3. increase amounts of sodium in the diet.
  4. monitor weight and activity. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 2. monitor blood pressure.
  1. The family of a client diagnosed with a stroke asks the nurse if this health problem is very common. The nurse should respond that in the United States a person has a stroke every:
  1. 40 seconds.
  2. 1 minutes.
  3. 2 minutes.
  4. 5 minutes. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 1. 40 seconds.
  1. A client is being evaluated for a stroke. The nurse knows that one of the easiest and most common diagnostic tests used to differentiate between strokes is:
  1. Minor ischemic stroke within 30 days
  2. Glucose level 120 mg/dL
  3. Blood pressure 190/120 mmHg
  4. Lumbar puncture 2 days ago
  5. Stroke onset 5 hours ago
  6. INR 1.0 -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” 1. Minor ischemic stroke within 30 days 3.Blood pressure 190/120 mmHg 4.Lumbar puncture 2 days ago 5.Stroke onset 5 hours ago
  1. A patient with a temporary loss of motor function is diagnosed with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). What should the nurse include when assisting in the teaching about this health problem? a. You had a small hemorrhage in your brain. b. Your brain was temporarily deprived of oxygen. c. The neurons in your brain are tangled, so messages get mixed up. d. You have a vessel that is occluded, blocking the blood supply to your brain. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. Your brain was temporarily deprived of oxygen.
  2. The nurse is assisting with teaching a patient who has had a transient ischemic attack (TIA). On which understanding should the nurse base teaching? a. TIAs are not serious, and the patient should have no further problems. b. A TIA is predictive that the patient will have a heart attack within 1 year. c. A TIA is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. d. A TIA is a forewarning that the patient is at risk for a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” d. A TIA is a forewarning that the patient is at risk for a cerebrovascular accident (stroke).
  1. The nurse is planning care for a client with right-sided weakness and aphasia from a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which area of the brain should the nurse realize was affected in this client? a. Medulla b. Occipital lobe c. Left hemisphere d. Right hemisphere -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Left hemisphere
  2. A patient with a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) has left-sided flaccidity and is unable to speak but seems to understand everything the nurse says. Which term should the nurse use to document the patients communication impairment? a. Sensory aphasia b. Motor dysphagia c. Expressive aphasia d. Receptive dysphagia -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Expressive aphasia
  3. The nurse is documenting care provided to a patient with left- sided flaccidity caused by a stroke. Which term should the nurse use to document this patients motor status? a. Ipsilateral paraplegia b. Ipsilateral hemiparesis c. Contralateral hemiplegia d. Contralateral quadriparesis -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Contralateral hemiplegia
  4. A patient comes into the emergency department with symptoms of a stroke. Which medication should the nurse expect may be given to the patient if diagnostic testing confirms an ischemic stroke? a. Heparin b. Clopidogrel (Plavix) c. Warfarin (Coumadin) d. Tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA) -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” d. Tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA)

c. To maximize remaining abilities d. To determine the extent of neurological deficits -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. To maximize remaining abilities

  1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a severe headache and photophobia. A lumbar puncture confirms a bleeding aneurysm. What nursing interventions should the nurse anticipate assisting with to prevent increased intracranial pressure (ICP) during the acute phase of illness? a. Morphine, dark glasses, and expectorants b. Quiet room, head of bed up, and stool softeners c. Coughing and deep breathing exercises and tranquilizers d. Range of motion exercises, bedside commode, and suctioning as needed -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” b. Quiet room, head of bed up, and stool softeners
  2. A client with a subarachnoid bleed refuses to use a bedpan and becomes angry when denied permission to walk to the bathroom. While waiting to hear from the health care provider (HCP), which action should the nurse take? a. Help the patient to get up on a bedside commode b. Wait for the neurosurgeon to call back with orders c. Page security to restrain the patient from harming the nurse d. Administer an as-needed dose of a sedative that is ordered -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” d. Administer an as-needed dose of a sedative that is ordered
  3. A patient is experiencing bilateral hemiparesis, dysphasia, visual changes, and altered level of consciousness, ataxia, and dysphagia. Which artery was most likely affected in this patients stroke? a. Carotid b. Middle cerebral c. Posterior cerebral d. Vertebrobasilar/cerebellar -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” d. Vertebrobasilar/cerebellar
  1. The patient is diagnosed with a cerebral vascular accident that has the slowest rate of recovery and the highest probability of causing extensive neurological deficits. For which type of stroke should the nurse plan care for this patient? a. Thrombotic stroke b. Cerebral aneurysm c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) d. Reversible ischemic neurological deficit (RIND) -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)
  2. A patient enters the emergency department with right-sided weakness and vision changes. What assessment finding should be communicated to the registered nurse (RN) or HCP immediately? a. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL b. Blood pressure 148/92 mm Hg c. Onset of symptoms occurred 90 minutes ago d. History of transient ischemic attack (TIA) 3 months ago -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. Onset of symptoms occurred 90 minutes ago
  3. The nurse is reviewing teaching provided to a patient with transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which statement indicates that further teaching is required? a. The risk factors and symptoms of a TIA are just like those of a stroke. b. I need to stop smoking to help lower my chances of this happening again. c. My risk for Alzheimers disease is increased now, so Iโ€™ll have to stop driving. d. I recognize how important it is to take my anti-hypertension medications regularly. -- Correct Answer โœ”โœ” c. My risk for Alzheimers disease is increased now, so Iโ€™ll have to stop driving.
  4. A patient began experiencing manifestations of a stroke at 0800 hours. By which time should thrombolytic medications be provided to reverse stroke symptoms?