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ACHE BOG PRACTICE EXAM / ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS 2025/
According to the ACHE's Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to: a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios. b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist. c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections. d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions. D The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes. b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes. c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance. d. Focusing on employees' roles to focusing on process outcomes. A What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing? a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated. b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive. c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic
benefit. d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law. B Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians' clinical productivity? a. RVU b. CMS c. IPO d. CPU A Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost? a. Charge-based b. Cost-based c. Prospective payment d. Per diem C Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations. b. Privately owned healthcare organizations. c. Government owned healthcare organizations. d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations. A
C
The first role of the governing body is to: a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals. b. Recruit members who understand the health services field. c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission. d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance. C Internal members of the healthcare organization's governing body: a. Serve on an ad hoc basis and are rarely voting members. b. Are kept to a minimum due to concerns regarding confidentiality. c. Often include the CEO, medical director and CFO. d. Often include the executive staff in planning and information management. C In assessing the advantage of using a focus group over a survey in evaluating a program, one could say that focus groups: a. Are likely to use a larger sample size. b. Are more useful in designing improvements to a program. c. Are more precise in designing improvements to a program. d. Are useful only when maintaining objectivity is not important. B From a marketing viewpoint, the development of standards of practice, clinical pathways, clinical guidelines and protocols can all be viewed as efforts to deal with which unique aspect of delivering services: a. Inseparability.
b. Intangibility. c. Heterogeneity. d. Perishability. C What purpose do market plans fulfill for the healthcare organization? a. Provide a business plan (or plans) as a subset of the organization's marketing plan. b. Present general goals for the organization to attain in the next three to five years. c. Develop promotion methods to be used in attaining the organization's objectives. d. Provide specific objectives for utilization attainment the next fiscal year. D The five major functions of marketing are: a. Identifying markets, promoting the organization, recruitment of providers, managing external relationships, patient selection. b. Identifying markets, health promotion, managing external relationships, patient selection, attracting capable workers. c. Identifying markets, promoting the organization, managing external relationship, convincing patients to select the organization, attracting capable workers. d. Identifying markets, promoting the organization, managing external relationships, strategic planning, physician recruitment. C Forecasting organizational need for human resources by focusing on specific position openings that are likely to occur and using these for planning is called: a. Demand-pull approach. b. Supply-push approach.
b. Supply-push approach. c. Demand-pull approach d. Rating scale method. B Which of the following describes the conflict management strategy that would have the most immediate effect on reducing conflict behavior? a. Imposition of formal authority to resolve or suppress conflict. b. Implementation of substantial, super-ordinate goals that require cooperation among units. c. Rotation of members of one unit into another unit. d. Provision of intergroup training that requires listing of perceptions and identifying differences. A Multi-rater assessment (360 degrees feedback) of managers in healthcare organizations is best used: a. In the development of a specific action plan by appraises. b. As part of a training or coaching session. c. As part of the performance appraisal system of the organization. d. When the appraisers are held accountable for their ratings. A Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) for specific jobs can be: a. Used to identify components of job behaviors. b. Developed in a short period of time. c. Used for evaluation but not for employee development. d. Subjective on some scale items. A
If the amount of charity care increased from one reporting period to the next, which of the following would occur? a. Provision for bad debts would increase. b. Unrestricted net assets would increase. c. Unrestricted net assets would neither, increase or decrease. d. Unrestricted net assets would decrease. D Which would be a reasonable basis on which to allocate administrative overhead costs? a. Salaries. b. Amount of supplies used. c. Hours worked. d. Square footage. B The effective cost of debt is roughly the same for both not-for-profit and investor-owned organizations because: a. Both types of organizations can issue tax-exempt debt. b. The interest rate is the same on both tax-exempt and regular debt. c. Neither type of organization can issue tax-exempt debt. d. The tax deductibility of interest for investor-owned firms offsets the lower coupon rate on tax-exempt debt. D The master site plan (or master facility plan) for a healthcare organization: a. Describes future facility needs (either renovation or new construction) necessary to meet strategic and operational needs. b. Provides detailed design documents for all construction
organization to the time it is used. c. Utilize a computerized materials management system that allows the organization to minimize inventory levels. d. Negotiate a contract with an outside vendor who specializes in supply distribution to provide these services. B The objective of maintenance and repair services is to keep the facility and its equipment operating like new. This goal is best achieved by emphasizing: a. Prevention. b. Efficiency. c. Productivity. d. Safety. A The facility's plan for a healthcare organization may include plans for renovation or new construction, energy requirements, acquisition of new property, financing options, etc. However, the facility plan begins with an estimate of each service or department's: a. Operational needs. b. Parking needs. c. Staffing needs. d. Equipment needs. A An important management principle that should guide the development of information systems in healthcare organizations is to: a. Treat information as an essential organizational resource.
b. Delegate all decisions about information technology to technical specialists. c. Employ consultants to set priorities for systems to be developed. d. Always buy the newest system available to avoid technical obsolescence. A Which of the following is a major priority for system development in the managed care environment? a. Development of enterprise-wide computer networks. b. Development of repositories of computerized patient records. c. Development of operational inpatient systems. d. Development of strategic decision support systems. C Which of the following is considered the best source of information to help a healthcare organization improve its existing services? a. Ongoing patient and internal customer satisfaction surveys. b. Focus groups to gather information and statistics from non-patients. c. Telephonic surveys of anyone who may decide to use the healthcare organization. d. Weekly meetings with staff members to determine organizational deficiencies. D Which of the following is an Example of an asset? a. Accounts payable. b. Accrued employee benefits. c. Property, plant and equipment d. Unrealized gain. C
c. Advertise services available to the community. d. Communicate financial information to business units of the organization. C The best way to facilitate information system integration within a healthcare organization is to: a. Centralize all computer activities. b. Use computer equipment from only one manufacturer. c. Use computer software from only one vendor. d. Standardize data definitions and data structures. D Which of the following is a developing technology that will help control unauthorized access to computerized information? a. Optical scanners. b. Biometric access control devices. c. Wireless terminals. d. High-speed modems. B In negotiating a contract for an information system, healthcare organizations should: a. Form a negotiating team and utilize legal counsel. b. Use the standard contract provided by the system vendor. c. Employ a consultant from among a list provided by the vendor. d. Use a cost-plus contract to maximize flexibility in system design. A
Which of the following is the most important factor to consider in evaluating vendor software packages? a. Size of the vendor's marketing staff. b. Ability of the software to interface with existing systems. c. Programming language used to write the software. d. Geographic location of the vendor's corporation office. B The CIO for a healthcare organization is typically responsible for which of the following functions? a. Information systems and finance. b. Medical Records and patient registration c. Telecommunications and public relations. d. Information systems and telecommunications. D In selecting an information system, a consultant can best be used to: a. Chair the selection committee. b. Make the final selection decision. c. Provide technical information and an outside prospective. d. Handle all communications and prospective vendors. C The Information Systems Steering Committee for a healthcare organization should perform which of the following duties? a. Information systems planning, selection of software and development of related
An efficient Formulary and Therapeutics Committee in many hospitals evaluates all of the following except: a. Symptoms of adverse reactions. b. Patients' current medication effectiveness. c. Contraindications. d. Specific drugs in terms of appropriateness to caseload. B Healthcare organizations often utilize special purpose software which allows rapid access to large archives of integrated data to assist management with decision making. This is typically referred to as a (an): a. System analysis program. b. Report writer. c. Decision matrix management tool. d. Executive decision support system. D Which of the following would represent the most common cause of adverse drug events (ADEs)? a. Lack of standardization. b. Lack of knowledge of drug. c. Preparation errors. d. Transcription errors. B What is the primary advantage of the corporate form of organization for a healthcare provider?
a. It exists by virtue of a statute providing for its formation. b. It has powers granted to it by its charter. c. Its continued existence is not affected by the death or disability of an owner. d. It has limited liability. D Law and tradition have established basic criteria for healthcare governing boards. One criteria is that: a. All members agree to receive care at the governed organization. b. Board members provide a specified amount of financial support. c. The actions of the board are reasonable and prudent. d. The board must meet a minimum of two times each year. C Continuous quality improvement assumes that: a. Achievement will be rewarded. b. There is direction from top management. c. There is no upper limit to excellence. d. Interconnected work teams are in place. C Which of the following best describes the responsibility of a hospital with an emergency department (ED) when a person comes to the ED for Examination or treatment? a. The hospital must admit the patient for observation and treatment if an emergency condition exists. b. The hospital must provide an appropriate medical screening to determine whether an emergency condition exists and, if so, stabilize the condition.
c. Developing processes to allow employees to report potential problems d. Identifying and preventing criminal and unethical conduct. B A privilege of confidentiality exists in a physician-patient relationship when the physician- acquired information is: a. Documented in the patient's medical records. b. Substantiated by the patient's nurse. c. Related to the care and treatment of the patient. d. Confirmed and documented by the patient. C Participating providers in the federal Medicare program must: a. Be accredited by the Joint Commission. b. Serve Medicaid beneficiaries. c. Meet the Conditions of Participation. d. Be in compliance with state Certificate of Need laws. C Which physician organization is responsible for accrediting residency training programs? a. ACGME b. AAMC c. CAT d. BPQA A
Which of the following are important aspects to consider when establishing a joint venture? a. Joint ventures involve independent management teams and independent governance structures. b. Joint ventures involve capital investment by all parties, can be difficult to dissolve, and are usually expected to be permanent. c. Joint ventures are managed like an internal organization and are usually renegotiated annually. d. Joint ventures are developed to acquire portions of the parent organizations and are generally accepted as irreversible. B A balanced scorecard is a set of performance measurements used to: a. Assess patient satisfaction. b. Ensure the organization does not exceed one performance metric at the expense of another. c. Provide a scorecard for annual performance monitoring. d. Gather and monitor financial data. B What is the correct order, from bottom to top, of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? a. Physiological, safety, esteem, belonging, self-actualization. b. Safety, physiological, belonging, esteem, self-actualization. c. Physiological, safety, belonging, esteem, self-actualization. d. Safety, esteem, physiological, belonging, esteem, self-actualization. C
